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Do I have to pay yearly lease for a house if its not available for 4 months to me to live in?

There are 6 of us in the house, and the house is owned by the father of one of the guys living there. He wants a yearly lease to us, but he hasn't finished renovating the place. He still expects us to pay for may, june, july and august even though I won't be living there, and that it won't be available to me even if I had to. What gives?

Public Comments

1. I wouldn't sign it.
2. No, he's an idiot. what kind of fool would pay rent on a place they couldn't use? Look, you are paying for the use of the property. Property is unavailable? Your payment is not required.
3. No, he shouldn't do that. You should only be paying for the time you are actually living in the property and your lease should start the day you move in.
4. Run....run like the wind. Sounds like a scam artist. Don't sign or give money to anyone.
5. Its kind of a no brainer question. I dont know if this owners son is a friend or just someone you live with. Every landlord tenant law I have ever reviewed required the premises be habitalbe. There are provisions that landlords provide an suitable alternative in the event the premises are deemed unfit for habitation. Now that term is pretty open for interpretation. The basic minimums apply in just about every instance. Potable water, heat, electricity, sanitation are the basics. I dont know what you mean by finished renovating. If there are no carpet, finish work etc, that seems like a good starting point to negotiate a rent reduction or other terms. Sometimes the location of the house is good enough that landlords can make what appears to be unusual terms. Maybe the house in on waterfront or really close to campus? If you like where and who you live with it might be worth the time for a discussion.